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Matt Osborne's avatar

Welcome back

Anonymous's avatar

I recall you made an off-the-cuff comment on Twitter that the labour of wives substituted for slaves in gerontocratic polygyny systems (such as in Australia).

I’m just wondering, is polygyny actually a form of de-facto slavery?

Typically hunter-gatherer societies are assumed not to have slavery (with the exception of the Northwest Coast), but if we are not counting all sorts of slavery-like practices, we could be severely underestimating the prevalence of slavery in the ethnographic record.

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